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Rajasthan Judiciary Service ( R.J.S.) Exam Model Test Paper

1. ‘A’ document is said to be in the handwriting of ‘A’. That document is produced from proper custody. If the document is purporting or proved to be—
(A) Thirty
(B) Fifteen
(C) Twenty
(D) Twelve
Years old, court may presume that is in ‘A’s handwriting.
Ans:-A
2. What number of witnesses will be required for the proof of any fact?
(A) No particular number
(B) At least one eye witness
(C) Two witnesses with regard to documents
(D) One party and one witness
Ans:-A
3. Leading question—
(A) May be asked in examination in chief
(B) May be asked in cross-examination
(C) May be asked in re-examination
(D) Cannot be asked in any circumstances
Ans:-B
4. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Estoppel is not a rule of Evidence
(B) Estoppel form record constitutes bar of resjudicata
(C) There can be estoppel on a point of law
(D) There can be not estoppel when the truth of the matter is known to both parties
Ans:-B
5. The question is, whether ‘A’ committed a crime at Kolkata on a certain day. The fact that, on that day ‘A’ was at Chennai is relevant—
(A) As a motive for fact in issue
(B) As introductory to fact in issue
(C) As preparation of relevant fact
(D) As it makes the existence of fact in issue highly improvable
Ans:-D
6. A person summoned to produce a document when produces the document then—
(A) He becomes a witness
(B)He cross-examined by both the parties
(C)He is cross-examined with the permission of the court
(D) He does not become witness and cannot cross-examined unless and until he is
called as a witness
Ans:-D
7. The examination, after the cross-examination of a witness by the party who has called him, is called—
(A) Main examination
(B) Additional cross-examination
(C) Re-examination
(D) Re-cross examination
Ans:-C
8. Which of the following is not an ‘accommodation’ as defined in 2(a) of the C.G.A.C. Act—
(A) House
(B) Agriculture land
(C) Shop
(D) Gumti
Ans:-B
9. Who is not a land lord for the purpose of Section 23(3) of C.G.A.C. Act—
(A) A retired servant of any Government
(B) A servant of any Government
(C) A divorced wife
(D) A handicapped person
Ans:-B
10. Where an order for the eviction of a tenant is made on the ground that the residence for himself, the landlord shall not be entitled to obtain possession thereof before the expiration of period of—
(A) Two months
(B) Three months
(C) Six months
(D) One year
from the date of order
Ans:-A
11. No Court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under Accommodation Control Act, unless the complaint in respect of the offence has been made within—-
(A) Six months
(B) One year
(C) Three years
(D) Three months from the de of commission of the offence
Ans:-D
12. After the service of notice of demand, no suit for eviction of a tenant on the ground of default in payment of arrears of rent shall be instituted until the expiration of—
(A) One month
(B) Two months
(C) Three months
(D) Fifteen days
Ans:-B
13. The rent controlling Authority should, not below the rank of—
(A) Tahsildar
(B) Asstt. Supd. land records
(C) Deputy collector
(D) Civil Judge
Ans:-C
14. A landlord making false the frivolous application U/S 23A of A.C. Act may be saddled with compensatory costs not exceeding—
(A) Six months
(B) Nine months
(C) Eleven months
(D) One year
rent of the accommodation at a time
Ans:-A
15. Essential supply enjoyed by a tenant in respect of the accommodation let to him is cut off by the landlord. Who will make an order to restore such supply?
(A) Collector
(B) Civil Court
(C) Rent Controlling Authority
(D) Municipal Corporation or Municipality as the case may be
Ans:-C
16. On the complaint of tenant if he is satisfied that the landlord without any reasonable cause refused to accept rent he may levy on the landlord a fine who is he?
(A) Judicial Magistrate first class
(B) Rent controlling Authority
(C) District Magistrate
(D) District Judge
Ans:-B
17. No Court shall take cognizance of an offence punishable under the Accommodation Control Act, unless the complaint in respect of the offence has been made within—
(A) Six month’s
(B) One year
(C) Three years
(D)Three months from the date of commission of the offence
Ans:-D
18. Which is not the immovable property?
(A) A lease of land
(B) Growing crops
(C) A right of way
(D) A life interest in the income of immovable property
Ans:-B
19. In which of the following cases, a transfer of immovable property can be made without writing—
(A) Sale of property of a value more than Rs.100
(B) Lease for a term of 11 months
(C) Exchange
(D) Actionable claim
Ans:-B
20. The doctrine of Lispendese applies where—
(A) The suit is collusive
(B) The transfer is made after the decree the filing of an appeal
(C) Right to movable property is in question
(D) Property is situated outside the territorial jurisdiction of the court
Ans:-B
21. What kind of property is transferable?
(A) Right of re-entry
(B) Public Office
(C) Any kind of property if not prohibited by law
(D) Pension
Ans:-C
22. ‘Attested’ in relation to an instrument means and shall be deemed always to have mean attested by least—
(A) One witness
(B) Two witnesses
(C) Three witnesses
(D) Four witnesses
Ans:-B
23. Whether a transfer can be made in favour of an unborn person?
(A) Yes, by machinery of trust
(B) Yes
(C) Guardian has got to be appointed first
(D) None of the above
Ans:-A
24. A mortgage by deposit of title deeds is called—
(A) Anomalous mortgage
(B) English mortgage
(C) Equitable mortgage
(D) Usufructuary mortgage
Ans:-C
25. A lease of immovable property from year to year is terminable, on the part of either lessor or leasee, by—
(A) One month
(B) Six month’s
(C) Three month’s
(D) Sixty days notice expiring with the end of a year of the tenancy

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